 |
|
 |
 |
|
|
Forum
-> Judaism
-> Halachic Questions and Discussions
Geulanow
|
 Fri, Jan 15 2016, 7:22 am
|
I heard at a shiur this week by Rabbi Reisman that the bran of whole wheat flour is usually ground nowadays first with a special machine that was developed and then added back to the flour. Because they grind the whole wheat first and then add it back, it is not included in the measure of flour needed for taking challah and one would have to use more whole wheat in order to take challah. One Rav told me that I would have to use twice the amount of whole wheat flour to take the challah! Ask your Rav if you have a shiala.
| |
|
| Back to top |
 0
 0
|
spring13
|
Fri, Jan 15 2016, 8:25 am
|
That makes no sense. Flour means ground wheat: wheat happens to include 3 components (bran, germ, endosperm). Back in the day when they didn't separate them at all, no one was expected to double their recipe or somehow calculate the amount of bran and subtract it from the total.
| |
|
| Back to top |
0
0
|
Geulanow
|
Fri, Jan 15 2016, 8:40 am
|
Sorry made a mistake. They take out the wheat bran and put it in a special machine to grind and then add the bran back. According to the Shulchan Aruch, bran is considered separate if ground separately. According to Rabbi Reisman, that would make 3/4 of the whole wheat flour to be whole wheat so more whole wheat flour would be needed to take challah.
| |
|
| Back to top |
0
0
|
PinkFridge
|
Fri, Jan 15 2016, 10:34 am
|
Yes, I wonder if our local rav was asked about this too. I really should call. What I think I'm just going to have to do is make a larger batch if I want to take challah, dipping into a second bag. Should come out fine.
| |
|
| Back to top |
0
0
|
|
Imamother may earn commission when you use our links to make a purchase.
© 2024 Imamother.com - All rights reserved
|  |
 |
|
 |
|
|
